Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.3 4.3bsd-beta 6/6/85; site ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!bellcore!decvax!decwrl!ucbvax!brahms!desj From: desj@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (David desJardins) Newsgroups: net.physics,net.origins Subject: Re: Bogus physics reamplified Message-ID: <12430@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Date: Sun, 16-Mar-86 06:16:29 EST Article-I.D.: ucbvax.12430 Posted: Sun Mar 16 06:16:29 1986 Date-Received: Tue, 18-Mar-86 01:24:51 EST References: <368@ihnet.UUCP> <2057@jhunix.UUCP> <2874@sjuvax.UUCP> <446@3comvax.UUCP> <1825@brl-smoke.ARPA> Sender: usenet@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU Reply-To: desj@brahms.UUCP (David desJardins) Distribution: net Organization: University of California, Berkeley Lines: 15 Xref: watmath net.physics:3946 net.origins:2959 In article <1825@brl-smoke.ARPA> gwyn@brl.ARPA writes: > >The idea that centrifugal force can be explained by the inductive >effect of all matter in the universe is known as Mach's principle. >This principle appears to be necessary for any theory that claims >that there is no absolute motion. Am I stupid? I have reread the first sentence above many many times and can't make any sense out of it. In an empty (flat) universe some frames are accelerated and some are not. This is in the absence of any matter. What does "the inductive effect of all matter in the universe" have to do with centrifugal force?? This is not an attack, just a request for explanation... -- David desJardins