Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!decvax!decuac!cvl!bhaskar From: bhaskar@cvl.UUCP Newsgroups: net.math Subject: Re: Nifty math problem Message-ID: <1317@cvl.UUCP> Date: Fri, 21-Mar-86 16:09:14 EST Article-I.D.: cvl.1317 Posted: Fri Mar 21 16:09:14 1986 Date-Received: Sun, 30-Mar-86 08:19:35 EST References: <2222@jhunix.UUCP> <779@harvard.UUCP> Distribution: net Organization: Center for Automation Research, Univ. of Md. Lines: 57 Summary: Messy proof to a Number Theory problem. In article <779@harvard.UUCP>, greg@harvard.UUCP writes: > > Let C(a,b) = a!/(b!*(a-b)!), and let p>3 be a prime number. > Show that: > > C(p*a,p*b) = C(a,b) mod p^3 > -- > gregregreg I have a proof, but it is rather messy. Rather than use the most general notation, I have used examples to clarify a point. If a simpler proof is available, I would like to see it (by mail). For e.g. Consider C(5*3,5*2) 15.14.13.12.11.10.9.8.7.6 = ------------------------- 10. 9. 8. 7. 6. 5.4.3.2.1 ( 15.10 ) (14.13.12.11.9.8.7.6) = ------- -------------------- ( 10.5 ) ( 9. 8. 7. 6.4.3.2.1) = C(3,2) * Mess Thus in general, we consider messes of the form : [kp+p-1][kp+p-2]...[kp+1] [(k-1)p+p-1].[(k-1)p+1]... divided by similar factors in the denominator. If S(n,k) denotes the Stirling number of the 1'st kind then [kp+p-1] [kp+p-2] . [kp+1] = Sigma{ 0 <= i <= p-1 , (kp)^i * (-1)^(p-1+i) * S(p,i+1) } = S(p,1) - S(p,2) * (kp) + S(p,3) * (kp)^2 (mod p^3) . Now, p * S(p,2) = p * (p-1)! * H(p-1) , where H(n) is the n'th harmonic no. But (p-1)! * H(p-1) = 0 (mod p^2) (* Wolstenholme's thm. *) Therefore p * (p-1)! * H(p-1) = 0 (mod p^3) . Also, S(p,k) = 0 (mod p) (* easily proven *) Therefore p^2 * S(p,k) = 0 (mod p^3) . Thus [kp+p-1] ... [kp+1] = S(p,1) (mod p^3) = (p-1)! (mod p^3) Since the numerator and denominator have the same number of factors of the form [kp+p-1]...[kp+1] and since each is (p-1)! (mod p^3), the Mess simplifies to 1 (mod p^3) and we are left with C(a,b).