Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!philabs!cmcl2!seismo!lll-crg!nike!oliveb!glacier!kestrel!ladkin From: ladkin@kestrel.ARPA (Peter Ladkin) Newsgroups: talk.philosophy.misc Subject: Re: what is a fallacy? Message-ID: <12880@kestrel.ARPA> Date: Fri, 26-Sep-86 17:53:01 EDT Article-I.D.: kestrel.12880 Posted: Fri Sep 26 17:53:01 1986 Date-Received: Mon, 29-Sep-86 01:52:49 EDT References: <685@ihlpf.UUCP> <692@ihlpf.UUCP> <12466@kestrel.ARPA> <737@ihlpf.UUCP> Organization: Kestrel Institute, Palo Alto, CA Lines: 26 In article <737@ihlpf.UUCP>, cher@ihlpf.UUCP (Mike Cherepov) writes: > > c) Cherepov gave a definition of `fallacy' in a later article > > from which it was trivial to prove that any statement whatever > > is a fallacy. He's thus clearly wrong. > > Our machine was not getting any of this good stuff past few days. > I would like to see which definition you have in mind, as well > as your trivial proof. It's gone. If you don't remember what you said, why should I? However, let me try: You mentioned that that a fallacy was a *statement that is a consequence of incorrect reasoning*, or some such. I pointed out that, for any statement P, *not P, therefore P* was invalid reasoning, hence P is a fallacy according to your definition. I also noted that the definition you gave was not in my copy of AH. Your posting now suggests that you have a different idea in mind. Why not just use the definition I gave? Let's drop it. Most logic books have a definition of fallacious reasoning, and if you don't like those definitions, that's up to you. Peter Ladkin ladkin@kestrel.arpa