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From: devonst@burdvax.UUCP (Tom Albrecht)
Newsgroups: net.religion.christian,talk.religion.misc
Subject: Re: Salvation questions
Message-ID: <2716@burdvax.UUCP>
Date: Tue, 30-Sep-86 10:16:18 EDT
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Posted: Tue Sep 30 10:16:18 1986
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ptl@cal-asd.UUCP (Mike Andrews) writes:
>In article <2691@burdvax.UUCP> devonst@burdvax.UUCP (Tom Albrecht) writes:
>>... I hate to get sidetracked from the issue at hand because it is very
>>important, but, when you say that Jesus made up for all sin, for all time,
>>for all people, what exactly do you mean?
>
>God loves all of His creation, whether the people He created choose
>to love Him or not.  Look in scripture to see how Paul dealt with the
>same question - start by reading the 21 verses that make up Romans chapter 5.
>

In Romans 5 it appears that Paul is writing to Christians about Christians
and what Christ has done for us.  I can't find any reference in these
verses that says that Christ died for all men's sins.

On the other hand, I do find verses like Psalm 5:5 where the writer
declares, "The arrogant cannot stand in your presence; you hate all who do
wrong."  We also read in Romans 9 that Jacob was God's servant and
that God loved Jacob but hated Esau.  These verses point out the God is
sovereign in choosing those who will come to faith in him.  Just as Pharaoh
was raised up for a purpose, so too the children of God receive His mercy as
an act of His sovereign will and according to His purpose.  Not because of 
anything we do, not because of any faith we are able to muster, but because 
it is the Father who has given us to Christ (John 10:29).

>>If Jesus paid for everyone's sin
>>does that mean that everyone will go to heaven?
>
>No, our part in God's gift of salvation is to receive the gift.
>
>>If not, on what basis does God send people to hell?
>
>I imagine we make up our own heaven or hell; and at the judgement time,
>God will let us live where we have chosen by how we lived our lives here.
>

This sounds like rather fuzzy thinking to me.  You didn't answer my
question.  If Christ has paid the penalty for all men's sins, on what basis
is God justified in sending those who don't believe in Him to hell?  It
would seem to be unjust to require double payment for sin.

I'm just looking for a little more precision.  If Christ has paid for all
men's sins, and you admit that some people are still going to hell, what
exactly is the offense for which these people are being punished?  Are
they being punished for their sins?  Was Christ also punished for their
sins?  Is this "double jeopardy"?

>>Why did Jesus have to die for the sins of someone
>>who doesn't/won't believe in Him?
>
>He chose to, He didn't have to.  That's how much He loves.
>
>God Bless,
>
>Mike Andrews

I agree that Christ freely chose to die for the sins of His people, but not
for that sins of those who would reject Him.

--
Tom Albrecht
"Reformata, semper reformanda"