Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!mnetor!seismo!columbia!rutgers!ames!ucbcad!ucbvax!BRAHMS.BERKELEY.EDU!obnoxio From: obnoxio@BRAHMS.BERKELEY.EDU (Obnoxious Math Grad Student) Newsgroups: sci.philosophy.tech Subject: Re: Knowledge and the Academics Message-ID: <8705240306.AA24547@brahms.Berkeley.EDU> Date: Sat, 23-May-87 23:06:35 EDT Article-I.D.: brahms.8705240306.AA24547 Posted: Sat May 23 23:06:35 1987 Date-Received: Sun, 24-May-87 03:45:59 EDT References: <669@gargoyle.UChicago.EDU> <667@gargoyle.UChicago.EDU> <8705220612.AA16224@brahms.Berkeley.EDU> <6779@mimsy.UUCP> Sender: daemon@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU Reply-To: obnoxio@brahms.berkeley.edu (Obnoxious Math Grad Student) Distribution: na Organization: Brahms Gang Posting Central Lines: 58 In article <6779@mimsy.UUCP>, flink@mimsy (Paul V Torek) writes: >>By Kenn's own reasoning, there *is* an adequate basis. His thesis has >>received repeated tested over the centuries. (NB-Kenn did not say "re- >>peated".) > >Tested how? Look in the history books. Kenn's own reasoning was that "induction works". And he *can* justify it--by induction. Now, perhaps you don't accept Kenn's basis. Fine. Then you will prob- ably find that Kenn does not have an adequate basis for knowing induc- tion works. But you have found so by a non-Kenn method. > A bunch of techie types get together and decide that other >bases for knowledge have repeatedly produced "inadequate" results? Where did this come from? > To put >it less confrontationally, what standard of "adequacy" is being used here? >Not mere agreement, I hope. I hope not too. But Kenn's point was you won't even find "mere agreement" in the social sciences, except of the most general kind. >But even if he uses a better standard of adequacy, Kenn faces a regress >problem here. How does he know that his test for adequacy of knowledge- >bases is a reliable one? By yet another test? Regress beckons... Regress--or perhaps Loeb's theorem. No one has adequately formalized induction--some believe it impossible--but the idea of solving Hume's problem by self-reference, as opposed to infinite regress, is attrac- tive. Not that I know how to, nor expect that anyone would accept such a solu- tion in the first place. And while I'm at it, what's wrong with infinite regress anyway? Some- times philosophers seem scared off by infinity the way physicists were from black holes for decades. So there're one or two points here. What's wrong with self-referential bootstrapping, and what's wrong with infinite regress? For example, what do you say when an intuitionist tells you that excluded middle is theological fiddle-faddle? (I usually say, "well fine, I've got the faith. I BELIEVE! Now go away." I'm not scared off by the pejorative power of words.) >I saw your review, but "Hume's dilemma"? Which? You owe us phil.tech >readers some filling in of context here -- I don't read religion.misc. Sorry about that--I coined the phrase on the fly. I meant the problem of induction, which is what was being discussed. ucbvax!brahms!weemba Matthew P Wiener/Brahms Gang/Berkeley CA 94720 I should mention .... that I say aporia without knowing what it means.