Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!utgpu!water!watmath!clyde!rutgers!husc6!ut-sally!ghostwheel!milano!wex From: wex@milano.UUCP Newsgroups: sci.philosophy.tech Subject: Re: Uncertainty in life Message-ID: <4603@milano.UUCP> Date: Tue, 26-May-87 18:27:56 EDT Article-I.D.: milano.4603 Posted: Tue May 26 18:27:56 1987 Date-Received: Thu, 28-May-87 00:56:27 EDT References: <6762@mimsy.UUCP> <13261@watmath.UUCP> <3978@sdcc3.ucsd.EDU> Sender: wex@milano.UUCP Organization: MCC, Austin, TX Lines: 30 Keywords: Heisenberg certain Descartes Summary: Certainty and ~X In article <13261@watmath.UUCP> erhoogerbeet@watmath.UUCP (Edwin (Deepthot)) writes: > Let us assume that there is nothing that can be known for certain. Then, > a contradiction is reached because we have taken as certain the hypothesis > that nothing can be known for certain. Therefore, it must be so that you can > know something for certain. Readers of talk.philosophy.misc have argued this on out months ago. The fallacy lies not in knowledge (as Steve assumes below) but in a linguistic trick. Try the following formulation: "I am reasonably sure (P > .999999) that nothing can be known for certain." This claim does not itself contain a claim of certainty, merely an assertion of probability. Thus, no contradiction. In article <3978@sdcc3.ucsd.EDU>, ma188saa@sdcc3.ucsd.EDU (Steve Bloch) writes: > If X cannot be proven, then ~X cannot be disproven... I can see I'm going to have to dig out my archives on intuitionist logic. Steve's statement is problematic only in two valued logic. There are logics in which X can be any of {True, False, Unproven}. Thus, I can show that X is not false and not have shown that it is true. More formally, in a three-valued logic, ~(~P) ==> P is no longer the case. -- Alan Wexelblat ARPA: WEX@MCC.COM UUCP: {seismo, harvard, gatech, pyramid, &c.}!sally!im4u!milano!wex Shit happens.