Path: utzoo!utgpu!water!watmath!clyde!att!osu-cis!tut.cis.ohio-state.edu!mailrus!ames!amdahl!pyramid!prls!philabs!gcm!dc From: dc@gcm (Dave Caswell) Newsgroups: comp.cog-eng Subject: Re: Non-science not non-sense? Message-ID: <573@white.gcm> Date: 27 Aug 88 22:03:24 GMT References: <536@buengc.BU.EDU> Reply-To: dc@white.UUCP (Dave Caswell) Distribution: all Organization: Greenwich Capital Markets, Greenwich, CT Lines: 28 In article <1578@crete.cs.glasgow.ac.uk> gilbert@cs.glasgow.ac.uk (Gilbert Cockton) writes: .To summarise, in sociological terms there is an ideological battle .between science, intuition, custom, religion (in many guises: biblical, .mystical, occult), and the "argument" of the humanities as to the .proper basis of certainty. Science has the upper hand at the moment, .largely because of its value to material production. Despite hi-tech, .as we move towards a knowledge-based and personal skill based service .dominated economy, it is arguable (and thus I argue) that the hegemony .of scientific method as the ONLY proper source of truth will be .unsustainable. It just doesn't work for human related activities (see .Dilthey and the Hermeneutic tradition, ... for starters :-)). Your stating something like that as the economy becomes more service-oriented that we will add other things (mysticism etc.) besides science as a basis for truth. Your argument leaves a few questions unanswered. 1) How can mysticism, occult, religion provide any basis for truth. 2) Why is a service oriented economy any more likely to settle for invalid means of asserting truth. Science may not be the "only proper source of truth", but what in the world does intuition have to do with it? Why does religion have less value (your word) in material production and more in a service dominated economy. -- Dave Caswell Greenwich Capital Markets uunet!philabs!gcm!dc