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From: gazit@cs.duke.edu (Hillel Gazit)
Newsgroups: comp.society.women
Subject: Re: Women and Logic
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Date: 29 Oct 88 16:16:05 GMT
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[This question directed to me in email, but I have no idea what the
answer is.  I am hoping that someone else will know the answer--have
Lacanian feminists tried to look at other cultures?]

>               It is supposed to be because logic mimics the male
>method of dealing with world--logic is like the phallus--it is something
>which separates things, which is itself a separarable entity (that
>invokes an odd image), which dominates.  

How that theory explains the Chinese philosophy?  It was dominated by men,
and had a different way of arguing.


Hillel            gazit@cs.duke.edu