Xref: utzoo comp.unix.wizards:12621 news.sysadmin:1588 sci.lang:3385 Path: utzoo!utgpu!watmath!clyde!att!osu-cis!tut.cis.ohio-state.edu!bloom-beacon!gatech!ncar!mailrus!iuvax!bondc From: bondc@iuvax.cs.indiana.edu (Clay M Bond) Newsgroups: comp.unix.wizards,news.sysadmin,sci.lang Subject: Re: sexist language Message-ID: <15200@iuvax.cs.indiana.edu> Date: 19 Nov 88 11:16:06 GMT References: <1460@ucsfcca.ucsf.edu> <698@packard.UUCP> <3803@imag.imag.fr> Reply-To: bondc@iuvax.UUCP (Clay M Bond) Organization: Indiana University CSCI, Bloomington Lines: 57 .RM79/ Frederic Maffray: >It's funny, this newsgroup gets cluttered every month by yet >another (American) person who starts again the usual discussion >about English beign the richest language, with the most nuances, >the most words, etc. In a word "the best language in the world." 1. I am an American. 2. Though debatable, Arabic probably has a larger vocabulary than English. 3. Vocabulary size is irrelevant to the relative "subtilty" of a language. 4. "The best language in the world" is a phrase I would not use. >This usually does not even elicit accusations of chauvinism. But >if one person who happens to be French does just the same, >obviously with his tongue in cheek, he is immediately flamed. Obviously? No, not at all, particularly as commonplace as that attitude is. >Why don't you let "French = chauvinistic" on the same shelf with >"Jew = greedy", "Black = dirty" and "Hispanic = lazy"? (Assuming >of course that you do not subscribe to these stereotypes in the >first place, which I may doubt.) I might say the same to you, adding of course, "American = xenophobic." Where I come from we would call this the pot calling the kettle black. And you may, or may not, doubt as you wish; you're perfectly free to be as bigoted as you accuse others of being. You'd better do something about that chip on your shoulder. Somebody may knock it off one of these days, particularly if you're living on American wages. Andreas Stolke: >Bussmann's dictionary states that the original umlaut (the initial >assimilation) is indeed an all-germanic phenomenon, i.e. occurred >independently in all germanic languages. Again, due to later No, absolutely not. One of the distinguishing hallmarks of the Eastern Germanic languages (Gothic) was that it had no umlaut. However, most Germanicists (and their articles) use the phrase "all Germanic languages" (or words to that effect), when in fact they mean, "all North and West Germanic languages." Why, I wonder, is Wulfila so ignored? :-) -- << ***************************************************************** >> << Clay Bond -- IU Department of Leath-er, er, uh, Linguistics >> << bondc@iuvax.cs.indiana.edu AKA: Le Nouveau Marquis de Sade >> << {pur-ee,rutgers,pyramid,ames}!iuvax!bondc *********************** >>