Path: utzoo!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!tut.cis.ohio-state.edu!bloom-beacon!apple!voder!pyramid!prls!philabs!linus!mbunix!bwk From: bwk@mbunix.mitre.org (Barry W. Kort) Newsgroups: comp.ai Subject: Re: Fun with the semantics of paradox Summary: The indefinite meaning of the definite article. Keywords: Aristotelian Logic, Law of the Excluded Middle, Message-ID: <44072@linus.UUCP> Date: 28 Jan 89 23:55:43 GMT References: <479@aipna.ed.ac.uk> <3038@uhccux.uhcc.hawaii.edu> <43843@linus.UUCP> <32698@tut.cis.ohio-state.edu> Sender: news@linus.UUCP Reply-To: bwk@mbunix.mitre.org (Barry Kort) Organization: International Malefactore and Fulminator, Roaring Rapids, ME Lines: 30 In article <43843@linus.UUCP>, I took the assertion, "The current king of France is bald." and put it into symbolic logic notation to get For all x, if x is the current king of France, then x is bald. In article <32698@tut.cis.ohio-state.edu> Diana Smetters writes: > I think that some of the controversy may stem from the > alternate translation, where: > > "The current king of France is bald." > > is rendered into logic as: > > "There exists an x, such that x is the current king of France > and x is bald." > > due to a different theoretical analysis of definite descriptions. This > statement is false, without causing any problems with the law of the > excluded middle. Ain't it amazing how English is so ambiguous, that even educated people can reasonably disagree on the semantics of a simple word like "the"? --Barry Kort