Path: utzoo!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!tut.cis.ohio-state.edu!ucbvax!decwrl!sun!pitstop!sundc!hadron!inco!mack From: mack@inco.UUCP (Dave Mack) Newsgroups: news.admin Subject: Re: compilation copyright question Keywords: poster's rights Message-ID: <4535@inco.UUCP> Date: 10 Feb 89 16:35:24 GMT References: <5982@leadsv.UUCP> <5609@bsu-cs.UUCP> Reply-To: mack@inco.UUCP (Dave Mack) Organization: McDonnell Douglas-INCO, McLean, VA Lines: 48 In article <5609@bsu-cs.UUCP> dhesi@bsu-cs.UUCP (Rahul Dhesi) writes: >In article <5982@leadsv.UUCP> webb@leadsv.UUCP (J.J. Webb) writes: > Suppose I post a poem, program, funny story, etc. and affix a > copyright statement to it. Now, [somebody compiles something > including my work and] declares a compilation copyright [on it]. > If he/she didn't get my permission, aren't my rights being > violated? > >Any violation of your rights occurs, if it occurs, when your work is >copied for inclusion in the collection. Not necessarily. It could depend on the phrasing of the statement of copyright. If I put "Copyright 1989, David W. Mack. All Rights Reserved Worldwide." at the end of this article, I believe a valid case could be made for a copyright violation as soon as this posting was propagated beyond the machines that I myself sent it to. Copying is inherent in the way Usenet propagates the news. I doubt that the fact that the administrators of the other machines did not know that they were transmitting a copyrighted work would be an admissible defense, any more than the distributor of a diskful of public domain software claiming he did not know one of the programs on the disk was copyrighted would be. If I were trying to defend against such an argument, I believe the best route would be to assert that the poster knew in advance that posting implied the creation of copies on machines all over the world, and had therefore implicitly granted a right to copy which overrides the embedded copyright notice. I have no idea whether or not a court would buy this argument. Assuming that posting to the net constitutes "publication", the main question that needs to be answered is: what rights does the poster of an article give up, and which rights does he/she retain? Those who claim that posting automatically puts the article in the public domain are claiming that the author gives up all rights by the act of posting, in which case an editor/compiler/moderator could take the work and use it in any way he wishes, including selling it for a profit. If, on the other hand, implied copyright applies, then the scope of that copyright needs to be determined. If the poster retains all rights, propagating news articles which don't contain a specific renunciation of copyright might be found illegal. Jordan Breslow, are you out there? -- Dave Mack, soon-to-be moderator of news.admin.paranoia and no, I don't even play one on TV.