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From: root@johnbob.uucp
Newsgroups: news.misc
Subject: Re: Fcc Regs/Data Comm.
Message-ID: <2928@d75.UUCP>
Date: 10 Jan 90 20:55:59 GMT
References: <31A.news.misc@pro-generic> <70194@looking.on.ca>
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Reply-To: root@reed.UUCP ()
Organization: IBM AWD, Austin, TX
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In article <70194@looking.on.ca> brad@looking.on.ca (Brad Templeton) writes:
>a) A modem call is *not* the same as a voice call.  (This has more to
>do with the local BBS == business line question than the $5/hour surcharge
>question.)
...
>	o) Modem calls involve continuous transmission of singal in both
>	  directions at all times.  Voice calls are almost always half
>	  duplex (except with rude people!) and also full of the gaps between
....
>	  uses at least 3 times the bandwidth of a voice call.
???  I was under the impression that for local calls all the bandwidth is
available all the time.  Does anyone know of a local phone system that
compresses the signal to remove silence?  If your local phone system doesn't
then a modem call will have the same bandwidth as a voice call, even during
the silent parts.  (you're just using all that bandwidth to send nothing)
This claim of a modem using 3 times the bandwidth sounds bogus.
For a long distance call over a packet network, I can see how a modem would
use more bandwidth.

John Harvey
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I don't speak for anybody.  Not even myself.