Path: utzoo!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!uwm.edu!rpi!brutus.cs.uiuc.edu!wuarchive!husc6!m2c!wpi!gwydion@Dyved.csc.ti.com From: gwydion@Dyved.csc.ti.com (Basalat Ali Raja) Newsgroups: soc.religion.islam Subject: Re: Biblical corruption - where is the evidence? Message-ID: <7546@wpi.wpi.edu> Date: 2 Feb 90 01:48:12 GMT Sender: shari@wpi.wpi.edu Lines: 24 Approved: shari@wpi.edu >That is interesting. From what I've read of Muslim literature and the >Qua'ran, I can see two points (all quotations are from Arberry's >interpretation, which is the only one I currently have): > > 1) The Qua'ran says that God gave Moses the Torah > S. 5:47 "Surely We sent down the Torah, ..." > S. 32:24 "Indeed, we have Moses the Book ..." > 2) The Qua'ran says that no man can change God's word > S. 6:34 "No man can change the words of God..." > S. 10:65 "There is no changing the words of God..." > >Interestingly, both Mr. Moussaoui and Mr. Deedat claim that Deuteronomy >(which is part of the Torah - the Tawrat, or books of Moses) have been >corrupted, in apparent contradiction to the Qua'ran. The only possible >Qua'ranic reference I've heard of Biblical corruption is S. 4:47-49, but, >looking at the context, it is not clear at all that this is what the Qua'ran >is saying here. This is not very difficult to reconcile - assume that statement 2 is made at a certain point of time. As such, it logically "protects" all of God's word present at that point, and in the future. It makes no statements about Words of God in the past. Thus, the Torah is not covered by this statement.